On Mon, 2 Jan 2006, Dr John Stockton wrote:

JRS: In article , dated Sun, 1
Jan 2006 11:40:39 local, seen in news:uk.transport.london, TKD
posted :

Yes it does. In fact on the statement you get from Oyster detailing all
transactions for the last 3 months 1am is 25:00 and 2.15am is 26:15.
i.e. part of the previous day.


So you're saying that Oyster take the day as being 04:30 to 28:29+ ?

For it to correctly capture the 1DTC behaviour, it would have to take it
as being 0000 to 2830 - with the last four and a half hours also being in
the next day (how does that work? nobody knows!). I believe it does act
like a real 1DTC, and therefore this is what it does. I don't really have
any evidence for this, though.

tom

--
You have now found yourself trapped in an incomprehensible maze.