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#31
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In article ,
(Mojo) wrote: Maybe it's a Barclays thing. I got a crisp £5 out of a cashpoint inside a Barclays in Birmingham this afternoon. Our local Barclays has fivers in it's bricks, but only in store... -- Paul Cummins *FREE* mobile phone - http://tinyurl.com/2yw23x *0845, 0870, 070* - http://tinyurl.com/ywwdk6 *FREE* ADSL for life - http://tinyurl.com/22dlhh -- Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com |
#32
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![]() "Tom Anderson" wrote in message .li... On Tue, 17 Apr 2007, Dave Newt wrote: wrote: On Tue, 17 Apr 2007 21:03:01 +0100, "Clive D. W. Feather" wrote: Number One Son gets fivers out of the machine at his university. Now this is something that many people say that really winds me up it ISN'T HIS university at all saying "the university he attends would be more accurate" Is English your first language? That seems a little excessively pedantic. That's an interesting way of spelling 'completely wrong'. The OED, on the various subtly different uses of 'his': "Also used with objects which are not one's property, but which one ought to have, or has specially to deal with (e.g. to kill his man, to gain his blue), or which are the common possession of a class, in which every one is assumed to have his share (e.g. he knows his Bible, his Homer, his Hudibras, he has forgotten his Greek, his arithmetic, etc.)." Interestingly, the earliest quotation they have for this sense is from 1709, rather later than the 9th-century first uses for the other major senses. I wonder if this is an artefact of quotation, or a real change in usage, and if so, how this relation was expressed before the change. Cross-posting to alt.usage.english to see if anyone knows! Interesting, but I think it's an artefact of quotation - if anything at all. That 1709+ sense isn't the "his university" one. Earlier in the entry there are plenty of examples of "his" used for things which aren't possessions. I think Clavox has the wrong end of the stick. And even if he _has_ identified a change, it wouldn't be relevant in the slightest to current formal English, in which "his school" etc are perfectly idiomatic. If he doubts the validity of this attitude, ask him why he isn't talking like the first line of OED's examples. -- Mike. -- Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com |
#33
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#34
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On Wed, 18 Apr 2007 10:17:06 +0100, Tom Anderson
wrote: On Tue, 17 Apr 2007, Clive D. W. Feather wrote: In article , James Farrar writes The last HITW I knew that gave out fivers was at the Barclays at Gloucester Road, but that stopped three or four years ago. The ones in or near college bars are a good place to try. Number One Son gets fivers out of the machine at his university. Funny you should say that - the example i was thinking of was a Barclays machine on Turl Street in Oxford, within stumbling distance of quite a few pubs and bars, that does fivers. Or at least, did last time i used it, which was admittedly quite a while ago. The one at Gloucester Road, I think, gave them out because of its proximity to IC. |
#35
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#36
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On Apr 18, 12:37 pm, wrote:
On Wed, 18 Apr 2007 19:05:39 +0100, "Mike Lyle" wrote: That 1709+ sense isn't the "his university" one. Earlier in the entry there are plenty of examples of "his" used for things which aren't possessions. I think Clavox has the wrong end of the stick. And even if he _has_ identified a change, it wouldn't be relevant in the slightest to current formal English, in which "his school" etc are perfectly idiomatic. If he doubts the validity of this attitude, ask him why he isn't talking like the first line of OED's examples. Mike I am not and wasn't after an argument here but has I said it always riles me when I see and hear people saying this kind of thing " HIS firm does this that and the other etc etc" wrong in my book it should be the firm or company he works for does etc etc . What about "his friend" or "his sister"? What about "my God"? I don't see anything you can substitute there, but they don't belong to him. The "possessive" pronouns have had meanings in addition to possession since Anglo-Saxon. I had to look through /Beowulf/ longer than I expected (they used possessives a lot less then, apparently), but line 262 has "min faeder", my father, and line 267 has "hlaford thinne", thy lord. Neither his father nor his lord belongs to him. So I think you can stop being riled. It's just how English has always worked. Incidentally, the few other languages I know anything about work the same way. (Quotations 7-bitted from "Beowulf on Steorarume [Beowulf in Cyberspace]", http://www.heorot.dk/beo-intro-rede.html.) -- Jerry Friedman |
#37
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![]() wrote in message ... On Wed, 18 Apr 2007 19:05:39 +0100, "Mike Lyle" wrote: That 1709+ sense isn't the "his university" one. Earlier in the entry there are plenty of examples of "his" used for things which aren't possessions. I think Clavox has the wrong end of the stick. And even if he _has_ identified a change, it wouldn't be relevant in the slightest to current formal English, in which "his school" etc are perfectly idiomatic. If he doubts the validity of this attitude, ask him why he isn't talking like the first line of OED's examples. Mike I am not and wasn't after an argument here but has I said it always riles me when I see and hear people saying this kind of thing " HIS firm does this that and the other etc etc" wrong in my book it should be the firm or company he works for does etc etc . Hi, Clavox. Arguments are what we often do round here (AUE) - usually politely. You certainly don't have to use the form yourself, but it equally certainly isn't wrong: grammatical possession isn't ownership in the sense in which property is owned. See Ron's example with the drummer: I really don't see how one can fault, or improve upon, the Biblical "thy neighbour" or "[Jethro] went his way into his own land". -- Mike. -- Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com |
#38
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In alt.usage.english, wrote:
but to get back to the fivers I rang the BOE this afternoon and as mentioned here the other day BOE have enough new notes to replace every old note that is out there but they say banks are just not asking for them and there is no way for us or BOE to make them. What the guy at BOE did say more new notes would get into circulation if only people would take any well worn notes into the banks instead of just spending them in shops etc . It's no good blaming the customers. The banks need to put the fivers in their cash machines. -- Mike Barnes Cheshire, England |
#39
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On 18 Apr 2007, Mike Barnes wrote
In alt.usage.english, wrote: but to get back to the fivers I rang the BOE this afternoon and as mentioned here the other day BOE have enough new notes to replace every old note that is out there but they say banks are just not asking for them and there is no way for us or BOE to make them. What the guy at BOE did say more new notes would get into circulation if only people would take any well worn notes into the banks instead of just spending them in shops etc . It's no good blaming the customers. The banks need to put the fivers in their cash machines. The banks will do this only if they're forced/coerced to do so by a regulator. Indeed, this happened with tenners a few years back when the banks pushed their luck by loading just twenties into the machines. The advantages of "just twenty pound notes" were obvious: 1. More cash is held in each machine; therfore less maintenance in recharging. 2. Adjacent shops -- newsagents, corner stores -- would be asked to cash lots of £20 notes. 3. Said shops needed a larger cash float. 4. Businesses pay for cash from the bank; it's not a free service. Therefore -- for the bank -- it's money from both ends. (Less maintenance, and more income from cash floats from nearby shops.) The banks will not, by choice, load fivers into their ATMs; they had to be coerced into keeping tenners in there. -- Cheers, Harvey Canadian and British English, indiscriminately mixed |
#40
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