On May 25, 1:52 pm, Roland Perry wrote:
When you get a ticket issued on credit-card sized coupons, it says quite
clearly how many coupons are involved. It also says that you must use
reservations, where they appear on one of those coupons (and obviously
not where they don't).

So all the conductor needs to do is examine your full set of coupons to
see if one of them has a compulsory reservation on the leg you are
currently undertaking. In turn, you should be prepared to show all the
coupons on demand.

It's not quite as simple as that.

For example, I have a ticket issued on credit card coupons for a date
in June. It's for a 1st Advance single from Durham to Leeds. The
ticket says "Vaild only with reservation(s)" but does not say how many
reservations. The seat reservation from Durham to York says "Valid
only with travel ticket" and "Valid at 1608 hours". But neither
indicates whether a seat has been reserved from Leeds to York. No seat
has actually been reserved, because the 1608 is due to arrive York at
1654 and the next train which meets the 8-minute York connection
requirement is the non-reservable 1707 to Blackpool North. But if
everything ran to time I would prefer to join the 1658 to Manchester
Airport, which is reservable (and also has 1st class accommodation,
which the 1707 doesn't).

The Collection Receipt, which states the number of coupons issued, is
no help because it was for a single booking for more than one ticket,
and in any case there is no requirement fo it to be carried on the
journey. The instruction is "Please retain for your records".

In these circumstances, I'm not aware of anything in the rule that
states that I must use a non-reservable train(s) from York to Leeds.
Any thoughts?

John

In message
, at
07:40:46 on Sun, 25 May 2008, remarked:
On May 25, 1:52 pm, Roland Perry wrote:
When you get a ticket issued on credit-card sized coupons, it says quite
clearly how many coupons are involved. It also says that you must use
reservations, where they appear on one of those coupons (and obviously
not where they don't).

So all the conductor needs to do is examine your full set of coupons to
see if one of them has a compulsory reservation on the leg you are
currently undertaking. In turn, you should be prepared to show all the
coupons on demand.

It's not quite as simple as that.

For example, I have a ticket issued on credit card coupons for a date
in June. It's for a 1st Advance single from Durham to Leeds. The
ticket says "Vaild only with reservation(s)" but does not say how many
reservations.

Look at the top right hand side of the ticket, inside the orange stripe.

It will say "Issued as
N coupons"

Which are 1 ticket, and (N-1) mandatory Reservation Coupons.

If your trip has more than (N-1) legs, then the remaining ones clearly
cannot have compulsory reservations, and cannot therefore restrict your
choice of train.

The seat reservation from Durham to York says "Valid
only with travel ticket" and "Valid at 1608 hours".

So that's one of the coupons.

But neither indicates whether a seat has been reserved from Leeds to
York.

The indication would be an additional coupon like the one from Durham to
York.

The Collection Receipt, which states the number of coupons issued, is
no help because it was for a single booking for more than one ticket,
and in any case there is no requirement fo it to be carried on the
journey. The instruction is "Please retain for your records".

The collection receipt is as you describe, but what you need to be
looking at is the *ticket* for each person/journey.

In these circumstances, I'm not aware of anything in the rule that
states that I must use a non-reservable train(s) from York to Leeds.
Any thoughts?

It's not about whether the train is reservable or not, but *have they*
reserved you a seat?

[The tickets I have here are Advance for a three-leg trip, of which the
first and second have reservations, but the third leg is on a reservable
train and there's no reservation. I confidently predict that I could use
any train. Indeed, the only evidence of even a 'suggested' train for
that third leg is on my itinerary that the ticket sale site gave me.
--
Roland Perry

On an Any Permitted ticket, you can go via London provided that you get
to Reading via Staines (e.g. Gatwick to London Bridge, W&C line,
Waterloo to Reading).

I'm sure a Not London ticket would also let you go Gatwick, Clapham
Junction (change), Reading (via Staines). But if it's an Any Permitted
ticket, I'm confident there's nothing stopping you going via
Paddington...

On May 25, 4:17 pm, Roland Perry wrote:
Look at the top right hand side of the ticket, inside the orange stripe.

It will say "Issued as
N coupons"

Not on this occasion. My tickets used to say this.

Your comment prompted me to look at tickets for recent journeys.
The last ticket which contained this information correctly was for a
journey on 16 April 2008 from Newcastle to Leeds. The ticket was
marked "Issued as 2 coupons" and the reservation "Retain for
inspection" and "Valid only with ticket 87223".

But things began to go wrong with a journey from Leeds to London on 22
April 2008, which was marked "Issued as 01 coupons", which is silly.
The associated reservation was marked "Retain for inspection" and
"Valid only with ticket 57558".

All advance tickets issued to me since that date are printed "Valid
only with reservation(s) and the reference to the number of coupons
has disappeared. Similarly, "Valid only with ticket xxxxx" has been
replaced by "Valid only with travel ticket".

Unless unable to book there, I use the NXEC site and a station
FastTicket machine. But even a ScotRail sleeper ticket issued on 19
May 2008 is in the new format.

This brings me back to my question whether there is any rule that I
must use a non-reservable train from York to Leeds. Roland Perry
agrees with me that there is not. Jonathan disagrees and says that the
ticket can only be used on a non-reservable train. Is there any
evidence one way or the other?

John

In message
, at
12:18:10 on Sun, 25 May 2008, remarked:
But things began to go wrong with a journey from Leeds to London on 22
April 2008, which was marked "Issued as 01 coupons", which is silly.
The associated reservation was marked "Retain for inspection" and
"Valid only with ticket 57558".

All advance tickets issued to me since that date are printed "Valid
only with reservation(s) and the reference to the number of coupons
has disappeared. Similarly, "Valid only with ticket xxxxx" has been
replaced by "Valid only with travel ticket".

My ticket was printed on the 28th April for a journey in July. It was
booked on the 25th April.

I will report back whenever I next book an Advance ticket.
--
Roland Perry

In these circumstances, I'm not aware of anything in the rule that
states that I must use a non-reservable train(s) from York to Leeds.
Any thoughts?

John

I remember that maybe 10 years ago journeys issued on the long tickets
(do these still get used except for Eurostar, or is it all credit card
size now?) listed your services with reservations, and then "suggested
service" for non-reservable trains.

Re the Durham-Leeds ticket, I wonder if Durham ticket office would do
you a reservation on a TPX from York to Leeds, by you manually showing
them your tickets?

In message
, at
03:24:31 on Mon, 26 May 2008, remarked:
I remember that maybe 10 years ago journeys issued on the long tickets
(do these still get used except for Eurostar, or is it all credit card
size now?) listed your services with reservations, and then "suggested
service" for non-reservable trains.

Yes, and that caused all sorts of problems, with some grippers insisting
you *had* to use the 'suggested' service.
--
Roland Perry